Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 15:53
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If freedom of speech is absolute, how come it's not applied for private spaces and for the Internet?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
How do you feel about Donald Trump signing an executive order that says there are only two genders?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.